Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 10:48
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What are 10 interesting facts about you?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
I gave him everything. He said he loved me. Why?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.